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Joined 2 years ago
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Cake day: June 16th, 2023

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  • How can giving voting rights to only land owning elites be for the ‘betterment of all’? How is disenfranchising the majority for the ‘betterment of all’? Even if we don’t count the slaves, how is not giving voting rights to women and poor for the ‘betterment of all’'? How is it any different from what is happening today, where people’s voting rights are being taken away other than the reasons? It was people wouldn’t know what’s better for them, now it is fake votes.

    One could argue that as a fledgeling country early politicians did need the support of the rich slave owners. But it didn’t take 76 years to build the country. Secondly how it is different than politicians doing the dirty work for the corporate for their election today?

    There is no way one could spin up a fantasy where genocide of indigenous people was for the ‘betterment of all’.