You have fundamentally misunderstood millennial meme culture ca. 2006 (roughly when the rules were made).
No one having a fetish for it would be extremely motivating to create such porn. People realized after it was made that they had a fetish for it. See: Shrek.
So technically you can still say “if it exists, someone has a fetish for it” but you’ve relied on correlation to determine causation and gotten it backwards. This is a great example of why we don’t do that.
It is my first belief that, given a proper pitch, ANYTHING can be sold at a profit.
Also, there’s rule 34: If a thing exists, it’s someones fetish.
If it exists there is porn of it… Not sure where you got that other version from
You can probably extrapolate from “if it exists, there is porn of it (no exceptions)”.
If there is porn of something, the most likely reason is that someone has a fetish for it.
If the person making the porn doesn’t have a fetish for said thing, then they’re making it for an existing market of people.
QED, you can say “if it exists, someone has a fetish for it”
P.S: What if there isn’t porn of something? Rule 35 states that if it doesn’t exist, it will be made.
Just because you can extrapolate something from it, doesn’t mean you can change the words in the rule. They got the rule wrong, simple as that.
You have fundamentally misunderstood millennial meme culture ca. 2006 (roughly when the rules were made).
No one having a fetish for it would be extremely motivating to create such porn. People realized after it was made that they had a fetish for it. See: Shrek.
So technically you can still say “if it exists, someone has a fetish for it” but you’ve relied on correlation to determine causation and gotten it backwards. This is a great example of why we don’t do that.